I am a bit confused whether bare Infinitive is used after 'but' or not.
Which one is correct?
We want nothing but to be free.
We want nothing but be free.
asked May 2, 2020 at 4:08
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Seems like you also posted this on English Language and Usage: english.stackexchange.com/questions/532623/…– RuslanDMay 2, 2020 at 4:34
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1This is a better place to ask such questions. Please don't just say "grammar book" but cite it properly and quote it properly.– James KMay 2, 2020 at 5:36
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@James K, Okay. Thank you.– Sandip Kumar MandalMay 2, 2020 at 6:07
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@James K, the question has been edited.– Sandip Kumar MandalMay 2, 2020 at 8:58
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1 Answer
The "but" is a red herring; it is distracting you from the actual grammar pattern
Consider these example
We want be free.
We want to be free.
I hope you agree that "want" requires a "to-infinitive"
If I insert an adverb phrase
We want nothing but to be free
I still need a "to-infinitive".
On the other hand:
I did cry.
I did to cry.
I hope you recognise that "did" uses the "bare infinitive". Adding an adverb "nothing but" doesn't change that
I did nothing but cry.
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1thank you very much for your valuable opinion. Would you please clarify : "He did nothing but cry" or "He did nothing but to cry" ? May 2, 2020 at 6:12
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if "He did nothing but cry" means "He did nothing but he did cry", then 'but' seems to act as a conjunction here ; but I think in the phrase "nothing but" 'but' is a preposition! May 2, 2020 at 16:25