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1) He bought a house and is living in the same.

2)He bought a house and is living in it.

I thought both are correct. But my grammar book is saying first form is wrong and we should use second form. Why so? What is the difference in meaning

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    Both are grammatical. If you say the first, you sound like an office memo from the 1950s, not like an English speaker. The most natural form would be and is living there.
    – Colin Fine
    Commented May 4, 2020 at 10:55

2 Answers 2

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In this context, the same is a rather formal and archaic way of referring to something named earlier in the sentence. It isn't ungrammatical, we just wouldn't use it in everyday life.

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  • I have seen 'the same' and just 'same' used in Indian office language, but in Western English they are so outdated as to be errors. Commented May 4, 2020 at 12:17
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It is not a mistake. Here, 'the same' means 'it'.

Examples:

  • You had given your book. Give me it (= the same) again, please.

  • I have received your invitation. Thank you for it (= the same).

  • He bought a house and he is living in it (= the same).

  • But using 'the same' here is very traditional and formal.

It is better to replace 'the same' by the adverb of place 'there' and 'is' with 'has been':

  • He bought a house and has been living there.
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