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I have seen people use the forms/expressions "to get bored of", "to get bored with", "to get bored by", "to get bored from." I would like to know which is the correct one to use when it is followed by a gerund as a non. Which one do you recommend?

If all of them are correct, when should I use each one?

Examples:

  1. John was getting bored of doing the same thing every day.
  2. John was getting bored with doing the same thing every day.
  3. John was getting bored by doing the same thing every day.
  4. John was getting bored from doing the same thing every day.
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    They are all grammatical. There's no way of stating which should be used. You could also leave out the word altogether: John was getting bored doing the same thing every day. Commented May 4, 2020 at 20:00
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    Each preposition gives a slightly different nuance to the sentence. English has thousands of ways of saying the same thing in different words. Also I am getting tired eating beans every day is fine, but it means something else. Also, getting tired and getting tired of are different. It's getting that makes the difference in that example. But, additionally, getting tired of eating and getting tired eating do mean something quite different. In many cases, the specific context can make a huge difference. It's very difficult (if not impossible) to have general rules here. Commented May 4, 2020 at 20:25
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    I'd say they're all okay, but to rank from most natural-sounding to least: 1,2,4,3 Commented May 4, 2020 at 20:25
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    I wonder if "I am getting tired eating beans" means "I am eating beans now and I am becoming exhausted." Commented May 4, 2020 at 20:41
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    @JasonBassford I understand. As a non-native speaker myself, English prepositions were, perhaps, the hardest thing to get right, and I still don't think I'm there 100% of the time. I found that things clicked when I discussed specific examples with people, rather than when I read the detail-laden dictionary definitions of the prepositions. I believe there is value in at least explaining to the OP what the subtle differences are between their concrete example sentences, so even if I can't sway you to provide an answer, at least please reconsider getting the question closed.
    – RuslanD
    Commented May 4, 2020 at 20:56

1 Answer 1

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The Macmillan Dictionary blog has a nice article about "bored with" vs. "bored of". The conclusion is that they are interchangeable, with the latter being considered a newer usage in the language (also corroborated by other comparisons between the two you can find online, such as this one). The Cambridge Dictionary's entry for bored shows examples with both "with" and "of", as well as an example of where it's OK to drop the preposition altogether.

"bored by" seems to be another equivalent way of saying the same thing. It seems like it was a popular choice in the past on par with "bored with". It's still not unpopular today - take a look at all these examples from printed books. Personally, I'd use it when I want to emphasize the feeling of boredom, rather than that something is boring, but I can't claim that's a general rule:

I'm bored by this presentation. (= This presentation makes me feel bored).

I'm bored of/with this presentation. (= This presentation seems boring to me.)

"bored from" means "bored as a result of", as you can see in the comments section of this Bored Panda (ahem) article. So you wouldn't typically say "I'm bored from you" (= bored as a result of you ??). I suggest looking it up in Google Books as well to get additional examples of how it's used.

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