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The falsehoods being spread vary, but range from him creating COVID-19 in order to profit from a vaccine, or of Gates being a member of a plot to cull humanity and/or implement a global surveillance system.

Could anyone help me figure out why the author used "of" here? Is the function of "of Gates" here same with a possessive form(Gates') - to specify the "doer" of the gerund phrases? Thanks:)

This is a sentence from a article on The verge.

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You have caught an error in the structure of the sentence.

They have started with "range from him creating...", and should have continued at some point with "to him being a member...".

I suspect an incomplete edit inserted "of Gates" in place of "him", and the preceding part of the sentence was not corrected to correspond with that change.

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  • Just an afterthought - published books are usually proofread and mostly error-free. Newspapers and magazines used to be as well. However, online articles often have errors, because of not being proofed, and because the ease of editing with a computer can lead to incomplete edits. May 19, 2020 at 8:57

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