The falsehoods being spread vary, but range from him creating COVID-19 in order to profit from a vaccine, or of Gates being a member of a plot to cull humanity and/or implement a global surveillance system.
Could anyone help me figure out why the author used "of" here? Is the function of "of Gates" here same with a possessive form(Gates') - to specify the "doer" of the gerund phrases? Thanks:)
This is a sentence from a article on The verge.