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And Carnaby Street was fab

The best weekend that she had ever had

this is the last sentence of "smashing time" a song written by Dan Treacy , the leader of the television personnalities

I was wondering why he did not write have ever had (up to now), why did he use the past perfect which means that he had never experienced something so good before this trip, but surely now this may not be the case

https://themilkybaskets.bandcamp.com/track/smasing-time-television-personalities

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    The song is talking about Jill's comments on her trip to London. At the time she said it (in the past), it was the best weekend she had ever had. Whether she has had a better experience since is irrelevant. (By the way if it was 'up to now' it would be she has ever had.) – Kate Bunting Jun 8 '20 at 16:41
  • Yes I know that is the sense of my question if you look at my question you will see that i have written it . It seems to me that writing have ever had would have put more emphasize on how great was this trip. Even if it is true that if she has had a better experience since that trip is irrelevant (i totally agree with you) (do you like the tvp's?) – Yves Lefol Jun 8 '20 at 17:02
  • Using an illogical tense does not add emphasis. Jill would have said "This is the best weekend I have ever had", which in reported speech, referring to a past event, becomes "...she had ever had." I don't know what you mean by tvp's. – Kate Bunting Jun 9 '20 at 7:58
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The entire piece is written in the past tense. Note the first line:

Cousin Jill came down to London for a weekend break

The writer is talking about a weekend that happened in the past, so it is correct to say:

The best weekend that she had ever had.

You would only use "have" if you were speaking in the present tense about a weekend you were still having:

This is the best weekend I have ever had.

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