I came to know that both "a)She has walked for two hours" and "b)she has been walking for two hours" mean the same, that she started walking two hours back and still walking.

So according to the above example, both of the below two sentences should be correct.

  1. Since she started journey, she has felt sick.
  1. Since she started journey, she has been feeling sick.

But my grammar book is saying only second sentence is correct. why so? What is the difference in meaning between them???


I think because both sentence don't has a duration time like "for two hours/for two weeks". In this case, it can be used to emphasize an action that's been happening "lately" or "recently", so the present perfect continuous is more appropriate.

| improve this answer | |

Both constructions are correct.

Your two walking examples should both say “has” and not “have”. Always “She has” or “She has been”; never “She have” or “She have been”.

| improve this answer | |
  • tq, edited my mistake. So you mean both "she has felt sick" and "she has been feeling sick" give same meaning?? – Ramteja Guthikonda Jun 26 at 7:49
  • Yes that is what I mean. :) – Anton Jun 26 at 7:58

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.