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Door entry systems place addition barriers for all those with communication difficulties none more so than for Laryngectomees.

(You can find this sentence on the page below: https://publications.parliament.uk/pa/cm200506/cmselect/cmworpen/616/616we96.htm)

Q1. Why is there no verb of the subject 'none' and how to interpret 'none more so than ~'?
Q2. In this sentence, there is only a prepositional phrase after a conjunction (or preposition) 'than'. Is it possible to place only a prepositional phrase after a preposition or a conjunction?

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    A comma placed before "none" would make the sentence clearer. The none refers to "those with communication difficulties", of which Laryngectomees are a specific example. – Weather Vane Jul 8 at 17:59
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*Door entry systems place addition barriers for all those with communication difficulties none more so than for Laryngectomees.

There are a couple of errors in the sentence. "addition" should be "additional". There should be a comma after "difficulties", and there should be two additional words "and for" in front of the word "none". The "for" in front of "laryngectomees" could be removed or left in.

Door entry systems place additional barriers for all those with communication difficulties, and for none more so than for laryngectomees.

The meaning is that "laryngectomees", those who have undergone a laryngectomy and are unable to speak, are among those with communication difficulties who are inflicted with the extra barriers. "None more so" means that none of those who have communication difficulties are affected worse than the laryngectomees. That is, they are among the most affected.

Q1. In the corrected version, "none" is the object of the preposition "for". It isn't a subject.

Q2. I hope the addition of "and for" will clear this up. "places barriers for X and for Y", where "X" is those with communication difficulties, and Y is laryngectomees.

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  • How about this sentence "The kitchen is very old-fashioned, the living room more so."? I don't understand why it is correct to omit a verb after the subject 'living room' – Orient Jul 10 at 17:25
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    @Orient The "is" is optional in that sentence, because the "is" after "kitchen" is understood to apply to "living room" too. Leaving it out creates no ambiguity, just as substituting "so" for "old-fashioned" is unambiguous. You can do that sometimes in English. The omission is called "gapping"; see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gapping There are numerous examples there, which may be more informative than the theoretical discussion. – Jack O'Flaherty 5 mins ago – Jack O'Flaherty Jul 10 at 20:16

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