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Is it grammatically correct to have a pronoun refer to a subject in the next clause? See the below example.

Because their guardians are with them, teenagers will not be able to approach drug dealers to buy illegal substances.

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  • I am sure that in your language, it's the same thing. Please post examples to illustrate rather than just dry grammar points.
    – Lambie
    Jul 11, 2020 at 16:01

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It is grammatically correct. When the pronoun follows its antecedent, it is called anaphoric. When the pronoun precedes its antecedent, it is called cataphoric.
See this link
grammar.com "antecedents"

"... a cataphoric (forward-looking) pronoun would find its referent coming later in the sentence: After his discovery of New Zealand, Captain Cook went on to discover several Pacific islands. (This example appears in New Fowler, p. 134.)

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