A: Why did she divorce you?

B: I guess she just doesn't feel the same way about me anymore.

Does "the same way" in B's statement refer to how she used to feel about me or does it mean that she doesn't feel the same as I do for her? (hope you understand what I mean) Is the line natural in this context?


The line is natural. The assumption is that, when they got married, she felt love for him, and she divorced him when she did not feel the same way about him any more.

  • Great. Is "anymore" acceptable in BrE or only in AmE?
    – user118626
    Jul 31 '20 at 16:02
  • I'm afraid I will have to leave that to someone familiar with day-to-day "BrE". Incidentally, on StackExchange, if you see an answer or comment that you think it useful, it is polite to upvote it; if you ask a question and someone gives you 'the answer', it is poilte to 'accept it'. These things affect people's scores, and is the coin in which the volunteered time is appreciated.
    – rcook
    Aug 1 '20 at 10:24

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