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In the sentence given below does the use of the word never imply that Fred has watched the game many times in the past,but has never watched it completely from beginning to end?

Fred has never watched a Barcelona football game in its entirety.

Thank you.

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Fred has never watched a Barcelona football game in its entirety.

In strict formal logical terms, we don't know whether Fred has watched any games at all.

However, in common usage, we would assume that Fred has partly watched some Barcelona games. Not necessarily many but probably more than one.

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  • Thank you for your reply. I know that never means NOT EVER,so does the EVER part of the meaning give an assumption or impression of many (or more than one)/ As a native speaker it sounds possible that Fred has watched more than one game in the past, but I am not sure what it is about that sentence that gives me that impression..I suppose that what I am asking is:what is it about the words and grammar in that sentence that make me feel that Fred has watched more than one game./
    – user263596
    Aug 15, 2020 at 18:50
  • If we say Fred has never watched a Barcelona football game, then the meaning is clear and unambiguous. Why would you even need to add a qualification such as in its entirety? The reason is clearly that that extra phrase is important and should be taken into account.
    – chasly - supports Monica
    Aug 15, 2020 at 18:59
  • thanks, I understand your comments.
    – user263596
    Aug 15, 2020 at 19:19

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