Consider the phrase, "is it possible, we could have rain (or rainy weather) on Saturday". This doesn't seem to be a past modal form as there is no verb it modifies, so seems more like a stative form of "have".

  • I don't understand the question.Why isn't have considered to be a verb? It's an infinitive form and it follows a modal auxiliary verb; that's the description of a correct construction. There is an idiom involved -- have rain, like have a party or have a fit, is an inchoative referring to change of state. – John Lawler Aug 30 '20 at 23:21
  • @JohnLawler "have" is not an infinitive form. "to have" is an infinitive form. OP was asking a kind of subtle question about a verbal color known as "stative". 'could' is modal; it cannot stand by itself. The mode of 'could' modifies 'have', not the other way around! – BadZen Aug 30 '20 at 23:30
  • @BadZen The 'infinitive form' of a verb is the verb form that goes after to in most infinitives, and also goes after modal auxiliaries and do. It's used as the citation form for the verb, and in English is identical with the present tense form except for the verb be, which has a special infinitive form, alone of all English verbs. To have is an infinitive phrase, not a verb form. The sense of have in have rain means 'experience rain' and it refers to weather, which is an event and has both active and stative verbs. – John Lawler Aug 31 '20 at 2:44

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