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In the below sentences, I want to understand why the usage of has is correct
Sentences
Above sentences are the right ones. I want to understand why the below sentence is incorrect Incorrect sentence
Why is has played is right and not is played?
Also what is right conversion of active voice for the sentence?
I play cricket with him.
Whether the above conversion is right?
There is no connection in meaning between "is played" and "has played"
"Is played" is a passive voice construction. "He is played by me" is equivalent to "I play him".
In the sentence "I play him", the subject is "I", the object is "him".
In the sentence "He is played by me" The grammatical subject "He" means the object of the verb. The subject is put in the "by me" phrase, and can be omitted. There is no grammatical object. A passive verb can never have a grammatical object.
So "He is played cricket" is grammatically incorrect English. The word "cricket" is placed as a grammatical object, but a passive verb never has a grammatical object.
On the other hand "has played" is an active verb form, and can have a grammatical object. "He has played cricket" is correct, just like "He plays cricket".
"I play cricket with him" is active. "Cricket is played by me with him" is passive (but we would never talk that way in natural English)
