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Here is a part of ACTIVE Skills for Reading 2, page 137:

Humans have traditionally been omnivores, with a diet of both meat and vegetables. But lately it seems we've become a society of meat eaters.

Is "omnivores" correct here? I think it should be "omnivorous" because after to be verbs we use an adjective.

So is it a typo or different grammar structure?

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  • Is that a link of Amazon page I see there? Sep 25 '20 at 12:48
  • 2
    The sentence is perfect. It doesn't need to be changed. "Have been" can be followed by a noun. Sep 25 '20 at 12:49
  • @DhanishthaGhosh Yes. I didn't find a pdf file for the book.
    – S.H.W
    Sep 25 '20 at 12:56
  • No worries. It is alright. Your sentence is self-explanatory. Sep 25 '20 at 12:57
  • @DhanishthaGhosh Thanks for your help.
    – S.H.W
    Sep 25 '20 at 13:14
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after to be verbs we use an adjective

No, not necessarily. "To be" can be followed by a noun:

  • I am an engineer.
  • You are a genius.
  • They are librarians.

There is nothing wrong with "humans are omnivores" or "humans have traditionally been omnivores".

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  • Thanks. So why it is plural not singular? I mean "omnivore" instead of "omnivores".
    – S.H.W
    Sep 25 '20 at 12:55
  • 2
    Because humans is plural, of course! Sep 25 '20 at 12:58
  • 1
    Since Humans is plural, Omnivores will follow the same pattern. Sep 25 '20 at 12:59
  • @KateBunting Is there any difference between "Humans have traditionally been omnivores" and "Humans have traditionally been omnivorous"?
    – S.H.W
    Sep 25 '20 at 13:07
  • 2
    Whether you choose to use a noun or an adjective makes no difference in the meaning. Sep 25 '20 at 13:19

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