I have a question. Yeah it is kinda easy but it made me a bit confused. My teacher said: "I've worked at there for 3 years." implies, I've worked 3 years and I still work at there. But as I know, if we want to imply that we must say: "I've been working there for 3 years."

Does "I've worked there for 3 years." mean I still work at there? Or which one is correct?

in this case, I'm tend to say "I've been working". And probably it's my mistake of having lack of information but "I've worked" seemed to be like "I'm not working here anymore" for me. Which one is better?

  • You're simply mistaken when you say "I've worked" seemed to be like "I'm not working here anymore". If we wanted to imply "but not any longer", we'd say I did work there [but I don't now]. – FumbleFingers Oct 14 '20 at 12:15

"I've (or I have) worked there" and "I have been working there" both imply that you are still working there. There is little difference between these so just use whichever you like.

"I worked there" without the 'have' would imply that you used to work there but don't anymore

Side note: it should be "I tend to..." not "I'm tend to..."

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