A Guardian article, entitled "What are the Conservatives conserving?", includes the following sentence:
Alas, we have seen nor heard nothing for a month from test-and-trace mastermind Dido Harding, who is assumed to be living under this administration’s vast Shitness Protection Programme.
What perplexes me is the construct of we have seen nor heard nothing. There are two points of confusion:
- Having "nor" follow a positive statement, i.e., instead of "we have neither seen nor heard...".
- The potential double negative, i.e., instead of "nor heard anything".
Is this an outright error in print or does this fit axiomatic usage in the UK?