I know that in the following sentences, the actions are most likely not done by the subjects but by someone else:

I had my hair cut last week.

Paul had his car fixed yesterday.

But I'm not sure about this one:

He had all of us fooled.

Does it mean it's someone else that fooled us by his request/order? Is there any difference if I put it this way:

He fooled all of us.

Are there any rules by which we can judge how exactly this kind of usage really means?

  • 1
    In theory it could mean that he employed someone else to fool us, but most people would understand it to mean 'he fooled us all'. It's a different sense of had, meaning something like 'He put us all in the situation of being fooled'. – Kate Bunting Oct 17 '20 at 17:09

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