Here is a paragraph from the Cambridge Dictionary blog:
As men are now being encouraged to talk more and be more open with our feelings, there seems to be a correlation with the rise of the ‘mancom’. That’s a male romantic comedy, as if you didn’t know.
The use of "our" there rings the bell in my head. I think it should have been:
As men are now being encouraged to talk more and be more open with their feelings...
Can the reason behind the use of "our" in the original sentence be that the author is a man? The author might be a woman or a man.
But, at the end of the day, I don't think the use of a pronoun has anything to do with what sex the author is.
Can somebody explain this to me? Thanks.