Are the following sentences both correct? If so, is there any difference?

For all I know, he left last night.

For all I know, he might have left last night.


Yes, there is a difference in meaning.

might have + past participle implies less probability that an action took place - we are unsure that happened, so it might have happened.

The past simple example indicates a terminated period without expressing a hypothetical situation.

  • The problem is that "For all I know" already indicates something is uncertain. Therefore, the first example, the one with non-modal past tense, already indicates that the speaker is uncertain about the truth of the statement. – Apollyon Nov 20 '20 at 11:59
  • Doesn't matter. The modal adds improbability on top of all that. – Alex TheBN Nov 20 '20 at 12:31

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