0

For the people who their cups are full, it's so much easier to give without getting anything in return.

What I want to say is that, for those people who have cups that are full, it's easier to help others without getting anything in return. Is the bold section in the example above correct or is there a problem (maybe with the relative clause)?

If there is a problem, what grammar rule is being broken here?

1
  • 1
    What's the difference between "there" and "their"?
    – Hot Licks
    Dec 12 '20 at 22:23
1

I'd say "for the people whose cups are full..."

2
  • @Araucaria-Nothereanymore. Probably because it's correct English.
    – Hot Licks
    Dec 13 '20 at 2:17
  • @Araucaria-Nothereanymore. So why haven't you posted an answer?
    – Hot Licks
    Dec 13 '20 at 2:27
0

I'm not sure I'd call it ungrammatical, bu it's certainly not idiomatic.

Many languages use a resumptive pronoun in a relative clause, often to avoid using an oblique case of the relative pronoun. English is quite happy to put the relative pronouns in the possessive, whose.

So, For the people whose cups are full, ...

You must log in to answer this question.