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In a technical document, which I have been reading, I am faced with the following sentence:

A name having namespace scope that has not been given internal linkage above has the same linkage as the enclosing namespace [...]

I don't understand what exact time-construction is denoted by the has not been given word-combination. I had been thinking that this construction denotes the present perfect continuous, but it is not true, because the verb is used in the past participle form instead of present participle form.

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    It's in the passive voice. "[namespace scope] has not been given [internal linkage above]" This is plainly in the present perfect tense. Compare the passive voice in these different tenses. Simple Present: X is (not) given Y. Simple Past: X was (not) given Y. Present Perfect: X has (not) been given Y. – Damkerng T. Jun 25 '14 at 5:18
  • Indeed, I've understood you. Thanks. The misunderstanding was in using of to be in the past participate form. – Dmitrii Bundin Jun 25 '14 at 5:39
  • @DamkerngT. Post the answer and claim your billiken! – StoneyB on hiatus Jul 6 '14 at 23:04
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A name having namespace scope that has not been given internal linkage above has the same linkage as the enclosing namespace [...]

As you understand correctly, has not been given is not in the present perfect continuous. But what is it? Its tense is the present perfect tense, and it is in the "passive voice".

How can we know that a given sentence (or clause) is in the passive voice? The trick is to notice the auxiliary be + past participle.

A few examples might help. Compare the passive voice in these different tenses.

Simple Present: X is (not) given Y.
Simple Past: X was (not) given Y.
Present Perfect: X has (not) been given Y.

As you can see, your example, "... [namespace scope that] has not been given [internal linkage above]" fits the passive voice in the present perfect pattern.

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