What's the difference between since + present perfect and since + past simple when since is not used as because?

I've seen both being used but never really understood what's the difference -between these two for example

I've been a different person since I've gone to Spain

I've been a different person since I went to Spain


The department has been extremely busy since we have had/opened an office in Mumbai.

The department has been extremely busy since we opened an office in Mumbai.

1 Answer 1


In both cases, your first example use present/past perfect. This form is common in certain European languages to indicate simple past.

Example: When translating to French, both phrases "I ate my lunch" and "I have eaten my lunch" become "J'ai mangé mon déjeuner". So, there is a distinction in English where there is none in French. Also, in American English, the opposite happens to some extent. Where a British speaker would use the present perfect, a US speaker may use simple past.

I suspect that you will hear a mixture of both forms in a country that has more than one recognised language and the languages have different ways of expressing things.

You mention Mumbai and it is appreciated on this site that Indian English does not necessarily have the same rules as American or British English.

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