I am studying English, and I came across this example.
"It would hardly be fair for the meatpacking industry to blame regulators for the harm that it has inflicted upon itself in the sub-prime meat sector."
I have a "Placeholder" it, which refers to "to blame...meat sector", at the beginning of the main clause; then I have another "it" in the subordinate clause ("it has inflicted upon itself in the sub-prime meat sector ").
My question is: How do I know that the second "it" refers to the industry as well as the reflexive "itself"?
It's just a matter of semantic?
Finally, is it correct saying that in a single sentence the personal pronouns should all refer to the same noun?