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Can I use both examples or the second one is much better?

I wanted to drink and drank some water.

I was thirsty and drank some water.

If I change "water" to "beer", the first example will be much better to use, won't it?

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  • I wanted to drink can definitely imply "I wanted to drink alcohol", particularly if there is some context that might suggest it.
    – stangdon
    Mar 9, 2021 at 21:03

2 Answers 2

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Both sentences are grammatically correct and logically valid, whether you're talking about water or beer.

They don't mean exactly the same thing. You might want to drink without being thirsty. You might want to drink more water (or whatever fluid) for some health or medical reason. You might just have eaten some very spicy food and you want water to cool your mouth down. Especially if you're talking about something other than water, you might like the flavor of the drink. If you're talking about alcohol you might want to get the buzz. If you're talking about coffee you might want the caffeine hit. Etc.

In general I'd suppose that if someone says he is thirsty that that means he wants to drink, but not necessarily. He might be thirsty but decide he should not drink anything for some reason.

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Both statements are very similar and grammatically valid, as @Jay described. There are a couple additional differences though:

"I wanted to drink" sounds a little awkward. In most cases where either phrasing could apply, most native speakers will say "I was thirsty."

"I wanted to drink" also sounds very close to "I want a drink" which commonly implies a drink of alcohol specifically. The strength of that association can be changed by tone of voice and other context.

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