I have a couple of questions.
Firstly, why does the author write This makes sense and is a logical argument ~ ? Does it mean that in the perspective of eastern folks, it is sensible to think that way because of the lack of information about western teams?
Next, what can they do is not finished with a question mark. Is it a kind of typo? Or, is it sometimes permitted without a question mark?
If it is during the regular season in any sport like baseball, basketball, or hockey, and the game starts at 7:00 p.m. or 7:30 p.m. on the West Coast (10:00 p.m. or 10:30 p.m. start time in the east), how many fans are going to stay up until after 1:00 a.m. on the East Coast? Not many. So the result is an East Coast bias that definitely exists, because they miss many of the games that happen on the West Coast and don’t get to know these teams as well. Sure, they get all the information the next morning, but not seeing the games live as they do on the East Coast can hinder their view of the western teams. This is why those in the east think that, more often than not, the East Coast has better teams than the West Coast. This makes sense and is a logical argument, but is it fair? Not always, but what can they do besides recording every game and watching it in the days or weeks to come (which I’m sure rarely happens). The East Coast bias will always exist, through no one’s fault. Time is of the essence and you play the cards you’re dealt by choosing where you live.