Asking about ‘to-infinitive’
The phrase below is a part of a sentence and I want to know how this is grammatically correct.
“~a world that had stripped him of his manhood, of his power to provide.”
The book translation sees ‘provide’ as the meaning of ‘support.’ (provide for=support) However, as i know, if we want to mean ‘provide’ as ‘support’, it should be the intransitive verb. Thus, I’m curious if this phrase is grammatically correct without adding ‘for’ after ‘provide’ as in: of his power to provide for. Help me to understand this!