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Why does the author use "to have had" instead of "have had"? Why did he choose to use an infinitive? What grammatical rule is implied here?

The full sentence goes

The movies gathered here are those that the authors feel, in the imprecise way of these things, to have had the most seismic impact on both cinema and the world.

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    Personally, I think the word "to" in that sentence is misplaced. It's not required, and it reads better without it. I'd suggest it may just be an error.
    – Billy Kerr
    Apr 16 at 18:09
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A verb following another verb usually has to be an infinitive (in some cases it must be a participle, or either). You can omit the "to" if you want.

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