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I thought Tom is singular thus I should use has rather than have. Here are two sentences.

  1. Will Tom have to go to a hostel?

  2. Will Tom has to go to a hostel?

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  • There is a difference here - in my question I have a subject name rather than a pronoun. Does it work the same way? Which one is correct? Will Tom have to go to a hostel? or Will Tom has to go to a hostel? – tannoy connect Apr 10 at 21:06
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    Modals such as will, would, can, could, shall, should, may, must, might always always always take the base form of their verb they govern, never an inflected form. This applies even when the verb they govern is itself an auxiliary such as have or be. – Colin Fine Apr 10 at 21:55
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No. Try converting to statements:

(1) Tom will have to go to a hostel.

(2) Tom will has to go to a hostel.

Only statement (1) is correct. The correct grammar is to follow the modal verb "will" by a bare infinitive "have".

When you form a question you invert the modal auxiliary and the subject, but the word "have" remains unchanged.

Will Tom have....

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