Working on the book: Raymond Murphy. "English Grammar in Use - Fifth Edition" (p. 248)

You have just run one kilometre, but you are exhausted.

You say: I feel like I’ve (just) run a marathon.

As the book previously explained, the present perfect simple is have/has + past participle, and I noticed the verb "run" used in the solution is in present simple tense.

Is there a typo in the book or perhaps there are other types of constructions have/has + present simple.

  • 4
    Run is not in the present simple here. Run is also the past participle of to run. I run, I ran, I have run.
    – stangdon
    Commented May 21, 2021 at 13:49
  • You might want to check out: principal parts of irregular verbs versus principal parts of regular verbs. Here's a good place to start: thoughtco.com/principal-parts-of-irregular-verbs-a-to-g-1689681 You have to memorize them. And the verb to read is the same in writing but pronounced differently.
    – Lambie
    Commented May 21, 2021 at 14:49
  • Thank you both. Also, good reference @Lambie. I've just read it.
    – F. Zer
    Commented May 21, 2021 at 16:17

1 Answer 1


There's no typo - "I have run" is correct, because "run" is the past participle of "run".

From Cambridge:

present participle running | past tense ran | past participle run

Note: in the case of a regular verb, such as "walk", it would be ungrammatical to say *"I have walk", but if someone said it, you couldn't assume that "walk" was present tense. After all, in "I must walk" or "I must run", "walk" and "run" are bare infinitives, not present-tense forms.

  • Thank you. About your note...Could you give me more information ? Is it incorrect to say "I have walk" but it is correct "I have run" ?
    – F. Zer
    Commented May 21, 2021 at 13:56
  • 1
    @F.Zer: ‘run’ is an irregular verb. You can't say *I have walk, because ‘walk’ is regular; walk, walked, walked.... It's how English works. Sorry.
    – Void
    Commented May 21, 2021 at 13:57
  • For verbs other than "be", the infinitive is identical to the simple present, except that the infinitive sometimes needs "to". So if you see the word "walk" on its own, you can't tell whether it's simple present, a bare infinitive (i.e. an infinitive without to), or (indeed) an imperative or a subjunctive. In "I must walk" or "I must run" or "I must be", the verb after "must" is a bare infinitive. This means (among other things) that it doesn't add an "s" for the 3rd person singular - so we say "she must walk", never *"she must walks". (I use the asterisk to mark unacceptable sentences.)
    – rjpond
    Commented May 21, 2021 at 14:01
  • 1
    Thank you, both. Yes, I understand now. The present perfect simple would be: "I have walked".
    – F. Zer
    Commented May 21, 2021 at 14:09

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