First sentence:

Biden also said he had told the Israelis to stop "intercommunal fighting" in the flashpoint city of Jerusalem.

I have read present-perfect-vs-past-perfect, but still have no clue. I'm wondering if I can replace he had told with he has told. What I know, both are representing an event in the past that has done/had done.

Another sentence:

Canada has extended its ban on passenger flights from India and Pakistan by 30 days to Jun 21 as part of a campaign to fight COVID-19, Transport Minister Omar Alghabra said on Friday (May 21).

My first guess of the first sentence is it's a reported speech since there's "said" as past simple and using past perfect, I can agree with that. However, comparing to the second sentence with the same topic (reported speech), but it's using has? So, what's the explanation?

1 Answer 1


You already have the answer: it's because it's reported speech.

Biden said, "I have told the Israelis to stop "intercommunal fighting".

means the same as

Biden said he had told the Israelis to stop "intercommunal fighting.

In the second example, Canada's action is reported, not their speech, so it would be incorrect to use past perfect.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .