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  1. If he was angry, then would he have spoken to me.
  1. If he was angry, then he would have spoken to me.

What is the difference in meaning between these two sentences???

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  • The first is a question, whereas the second is a statement.
    – aiwl
    Jun 12, 2021 at 8:24
  • 1
    Assuming you don't read it as a question, then would he have sounds quaintly old-fashioned in standard English. Jun 12, 2021 at 8:26

1 Answer 1

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As already stated the first is a question the second a statement. However I think you will find the correct sentences should be written.

If he was angry, then would he have spoken with me.

If he was angry, then he would have spoken with me.

"with" the act of doing something together. The alternative being "at you" but then you would have more likely said "shouted at me".

Although I do not know the context in which you wish to use this sentence.


A teacher might have "spoken to you" if you had done something wrong. But that would be phrased differently. And you are extremely unlikely to say "he would have spoken with me" linked with this kind of situation.

"I have spoken to her, the subject is closed".

I have reprimanded her. I don't what to hear anything more about it.

However the following is a possibility.

He was angry, and he has spoken to me.

It was a one way street he told me and I listened. as apposed to "He was angry, and we talked about it."

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