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I just came across with this kind of structure, "her also will I bless" I would like to know what kind of grammar does this phrase use, I found it reading the bible. can I use the object pronoun (me, you, him, her, it, us, them) after also and then a phrase with a verb, to say that the verb will be received by the object pronoun?

screenshot of Bible scripture

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"Her also I will bless" is an old-fashioned way of saying "I will bless her also." The grammar is exactly the same for both sentences:

  • the subject is I
  • the verb is will bless
  • the object is her
  • and also is an adverb modifying will bless.

In general, English sentences have the subject very close to the beginning of the sentence, the verb immediately following the subject, and any objects coming at the end. Most English words are not declined: the form of the word is the same no matter what part of speech it is or where it is in a sentence.

In Latin the verb usually comes at the end of the sentence, and the function of other words must be determined by the specific ending attached to each word. The King James Bible was translated from Latin and Hebrew in the early 1600s, and as Wikipedia says, "is notably more Latinate than previous English versions." I would say that "Her also I will bless" is a very Latinate rendering and is not how modern English speakers would say it unless they were deliberately trying to sound fancy and old-fashioned.

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  • There is also an inversion in the OP question "... will I ..." not "I will"
    – James K
    Jun 17, 2021 at 5:43

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