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I saw this test ==> Why ....... any good news lately?

and doubted between these two choices:

  1. hasn't there been
  2. there hasn't been

which one must be used here, with lately?

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Your query about lately is odd, since both your sentences have the same tense, present perfect.

The correct version is

Why hasn't there been any good news lately?

not because it contains the word lately, but because it is a question, and in questions, subject-auxiliary inversion is required.

What may have confused you is the dummy subject there:

Sometimes we need to use a ‘dummy’ or ‘empty’ or ‘artificial’ subject when there is no subject attached to the verb, and where the real subject is somewhere else in the clause. It and there are the two dummy subjects used in English:

  • There are five Dutch people in our village. (The real subject is the Dutch people – they are in the village.) (Cambridge)

So the affirmative version of your sentence is:

There hasn't been any good news lately.

In your question which begins with why, the subject there must be placed after the auxiliary hasn't.

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