Cheap products are often_______

Options: A.more inferior/ B.much inferior / C.inferior / D.very inferior

The given answer is inferior

Is inferior already in comparative degree? So that "more" can't be added with inferior?

  • 1
    Yes, that is correct. (However, B and D would be possible.) Jul 28 '21 at 7:46
  • See how bad these exam questions are. You can have more than one right answer, but if you choose the one not set as correct your marks will be deducted, no matter how correct your alternative is. Jul 28 '21 at 8:02
  • often refers to how frequently (prevalence), whereas more refers to how much (quantity). Jul 28 '21 at 12:38

"Inferior" is not a the comparative degree (in English, it is the comparative degree in Latin)

However it's meaning is relative. It means "lower down" or (in this context) "less good". So you don't need to form "more inferior". And this usage quirk is what the question is trying to get at: You don't tend to form the relative degree of "inferior".

It is grammatically correct to say "more inferior" and "very inferior", and these do have some use. A quick web search finds examples.

The Goths were much more inferior to the Romans

But this is bad style: it could have been written more clearly

Results revealed that the greater workers' superstitious beliefs, the more inferior their safety performance.

The comparative is forced by the structure of the sentence. This sentence could have been rewritten to avoid the phrase.

"Now, in my opinion, Dupin was a very inferior fellow. (Conan Doyle, A study in Scarlet)

Here "inferior" is meant in an absolute way: not "lower class" but "low class".

But most of the other examples of these are from low-quality sources: Posts on forums, essays written by school pupils, and lots of crossword clues.

The best answer is C.

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