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I wonder if these two sentences are equivalent:

I was completely fool.

I was a complete fool.

If no, let me know the difference and if they're incorrect, please change the sentence, so I know how the correct sentences should be. Thanks.

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    Though in my search I found similar construction, very little though, in books, it was apparently from non natives. The search produced very little result. This construction seems wrong to me. Grammatically an adverb can never modify a noun but it does an adjective. "Fool" can be thought of as used as an adjective but generally when "fool" is used as an adjective it is attributive, which is not the case here in your example.
    – Man_From_India
    Aug 20, 2021 at 2:59
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    Oh sorry forgot to mention in my last comment that it was related to your first sentence. As for your second sentence, it is unquestionably correct.
    – Man_From_India
    Aug 20, 2021 at 3:43
  • @Man_From_India Let's say fool in the first sentence is an adjective, is this the same as the second? Thanks in advance.
    – user516076
    Aug 20, 2021 at 4:08
  • @usee516976 in my knowledge I have never seen it used this way as an adjective. It's a noun there in your first sentence.
    – Man_From_India
    Aug 20, 2021 at 4:21

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I have never seen or heard 'I was completely fool." I believe it is simply wrong. "Fool" is rarely used as an adjective. Merriam Webster gives an example: "barking its fool head off". https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/fool But I think that is an unusual case.

If I wanted an adjective I would say "foolhardy" or "foolish".

If you wanted to talk about something that happened, you might say, "I was completely fooled." In that case "fooled" is a verb.

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