A book I am reading states that sentence (1) below sounds very strange, but it does not give any explanation about the oddness.

  1. Joan walked out and has left her bag.

I have tried to figure out why (1) sounds strange, reading all the articles the book suggested, so far in vain.

Does anyone have any idea why (1) sounds bad?

  • Every tense form has its use.
    – Lawrence
    Oct 9 '21 at 9:39
  • Standalone 'Joan has walked out.' defaults to the figurative sense. (1) must surely twin two synchronous literal events. The example isn't good, as even the syntactically felicitous (1') 'Joan walked out and left her bag' pairs a (default) volitional act with a (default) accidental act. I'd not use the coordinator 'and' here. Oct 9 '21 at 10:21
  • "Joan walked out a few minutes ago. She has left her bag, though, so I expect she hasn't gone far." Oct 9 '21 at 13:01

Many thanks for your comments, Lawrence, Edwin, and Kate. It seems that (1) "Joan walked out and has left her bag" is not good because it violates a tense agreement rule. Is that right? Then, I am wondering what differences there exist between sentence (1) above and sentence (2) below.

(2) Tom moved to New York five years ago and has lived there since then.

Thanks a lot.

  • Welcome to ELL. When you post an answer, it should answer the question, not ask a new question. If you have a new question, You should click the Ask Question button and create a new question. Oct 9 '21 at 15:10

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