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Swan's book explains:

In short answers we use me, him, etc. (informal) or I, he, etc. with a verb (more formal). The same thing happens after as and than.

Informal

  • I've got the same number as him

Formal

  • I've got the same number as he has.

Now, my question is, why doesn't the informal form like this:

  • I've got the same number as his.

This is the reason why I think like this: My logical thinking (as a learner) prefer [... as possessive pronoun (his)] to [... as personal pronoun (him)] because it refers directly to the thing (theirs) rather than the person.

Another example:

I have the same eyes as my mother.

Or

I have the same eyes as my mother's.

In conclusion, is 'the same (thing) as (possessive pronoun)...' correct?

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    His is not a reflexive pronoun, it is a possessive pronoun. The reflexive pronoun corresponding to he/him/his is himself. (And no, using a reflexive pronoun here would not be be correct.)
    – Canadian Yankee
    Oct 25, 2021 at 16:27
  • As is being used here to compare actions between two people. The action is having a number.
    – FeliniusRex - gone
    Oct 25, 2021 at 16:35
  • He is the same age as me, His age is the same as mine - NOT He is the same age as mine or His age is the same as me
    – FumbleFingers
    Oct 25, 2021 at 17:03
  • @CanadianYankee Thank you. I was a bit confused differentiating those two pronouns. I'll edit the question soon.
    – user516076
    Oct 25, 2021 at 22:35
  • @FumbleFingers Thank you for your comment. Since I use [I have the same...] construction in my example, which one is correct? Is it me or mine?
    – user516076
    Oct 25, 2021 at 22:50

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I would not refer to these a "formal" and "informal" forms, but as full and shortened forms.

  • I've got the same number as he has.
  • I've got the same number as he does.
  • I've got the same number as him.

Each of these is correct, and often used by fluent speakers. The meaning of each is the same. The third is a shortened form, and might be more likely in casual, informal use, and more likely in spoke than in written English.

I've got the same number as his.

can also be used, it is short for

I've got the same number as his number.

In this case the meanings are the same as the previous three forms. This conbstriction can be used in other contexts. In fact

  • I've got the same X as he has.
  • I've got the same X as he does.
  • I've got the same X as him.
  • I've got the same X as his.
  • I have the same X as he has.
  • I have the same X as he does.
  • I have the same X as him.
  • I have the same X as his.

are all valid, and mean the same thing, whatever X may be.

Now when the sentence starts with a possessive form (as none of the examples on the question do) then it should use a possessive for the target of the comparison:

  • My number is the same as his
  • His professor is the same as mine.
  • Your shirt is just like mine.

are all correct.

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  • Google Books shows me only a single example of got the same number as his where I can read the full context. And that context is “How come your horse has got the same number as his?”, where possessive his clearly refers to his horse. I don't think many native speakers would use the possessive there if all it referred to was [the same number as] his number - in that context it's normally just the same number as him.
    – FumbleFingers
    Oct 26, 2021 at 11:39

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