For example, if someone failed an exam because he just crammed for it. Is there any difference between saying:

  • it’s all his own fault
  • it’s all his own making

If there’s no difference in this context, is there any situation where the use of the two phrases conveys any big or subtle difference?

1 Answer 1


First of all: "it’s all his own making" is not idiomatic English. Beter might be something like

The result is of his own making.

After that change, in many contexts either of the two could be used with little change in meaning.

But in my view there is a subtle difference. The phrase "it’s all his own fault" is directly assigning blame. It says that "he" is responsible for the outcome, and he knew or should have known what the result would be.

In contrast, "it's of his own making" says that his actions lead to the result, but says less about blame. It might be that he didn't know and could not reasonably have known what his actions would lead to. So this covers cases that the other phrase does not.

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