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I've been to Japan many times since 2010.

I've gone to Japan a few times since 2020.

Are the two sentences both correct? In these sentences, does "been to" mean the same as "gone to"? No difference?

I've read the thread Using have gone to / been to / been in recommended by others in the comment area, but it doesn't solve my problem, because the three answers contradict each other. Two answers say you can use "Have you ever gone to Greece?", while the third says you can not. I actually agree with the third. If you are here, and I'm in front of you, I would not say "Have you ever gone to Greece?" To me, "have gone to" means you aren't here.

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Both are correct in the context of you having visited Japan several times since 2020.

In this specific case, I would say that it is a stylistic choice whether you use 'been to' or 'gone to'. I feel that 'been to' has a nuance of focusing on the experience of being in Japan, whereas 'gone to' is a factual account of your actions. However, as mentioned, that is a subjective and stylistic view, rather than a rule.

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It is not just a stylistic choice. You can say "I've been to this country many times" but not "I've gone to this country many times" when you are standing right in that country! The reason is that "gone" always conveys the action of going to a place other than the current location in focus. In contrast, "come" always conveys the action of coming to the current location in focus, which is why you can say "I've gone to that country many times" but not "I've come to that country many times". In more technical terms, this is due to the deixis-dependent semantics of "come" and "go", but the simpler explanation I've given should suffice for almost all cases.

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