I know it is right to say "I've gone to or been to the gym many times since June" according to the answers to my other recent question. But if I want to use the negative form, do both expressions work?

I haven't been to the gym since June.

I haven't gone to the gym since June.

I want to mean I went to the gym before June, but since then I haven't visited the gym at all.

2 Answers 2


Yes. Both of your examples are grammatically correct and sound perfectly natural to me (native AmE speaker)


Both mean the same thing in your example, but it is worth noting how exactly they work, because the lexical function of "been" and "gone" are different. We can say "been to N" where N is a noun phrase referring to a place. We can say "gone P" where P is a prepositional phrase. So we could understand your examples as "been to ( the gym )" and "gone ( to the gym )" respectively.

When would these constructions differ in applicability? Well, you can say "gone into the house" but not "been into the house".

As for the negation, it does not affect these at all because the adverbial "since June" modifies the entire statement "I have [not] gone/been to the gym".


You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .