There need none to be blamed.
Source: A Midsummer Night's Dream (Act 5, Scene 1)

Is this still possible in modern English?

For example: “There dared none to protest against him.”

Is this a version of the structure in “There lived a man in this city.”?

  • 3
    Could you please ask your questions properly? "Shak" is not a citation. "A Midsummer Night's Dream (Act 5, Scene 1)" would be specific enough. – snailcar Aug 7 '14 at 13:15
  • 2
    This is not a proofreading question, and is possibly an example of Votes in Bad Faith. If the downvotes are a reaction to the formatting, I recommend using the ‘Edit’ and/or ‘Comment’ tools instead of reaching for that down arrow. – Tyler James Young Aug 14 '14 at 16:37

This structure would not occur in modern English. It would become:

There's no need to blame anyone.

Nobody dared protest against him.

  • None as a subject is still correct in modern English, though more formal and less common; e.g. none dared protest against him. – Esoteric Screen Name Aug 15 '14 at 4:06

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