Bitter ex-husband: My ex-wife has a boyfriend.

Another guy: How long has she been seeing him?

Bitter ex-husband: Long enough for him to have moved in with them.

(them=the ex-wife and their mutual children)


Is "long enough for him to have..." correct in this context?

  • We are not supposed to correct phrasing or edit text. What is your issue with this?
    – Lambie
    Sep 9, 2023 at 15:58

1 Answer 1


The very short answer is yes.
You might want to make it a bit clearer by saying something like

Long enough for him to have moved in with her and our kids.

By the way, does mutual mean the ex-husband's children or the new boyfriend's? It is not completely clear. Although, given the implied time frame, it is probably the former, hence the use of our.

  • The former. Thanks for your reply. Mar 1, 2022 at 16:59

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