given that little text:

"by last monday's begining people who time traveled to the past knew that by the end of that same day there will have been a fire"

is "there will have been a fire" applicable?? if so I would like to make an inherent question

would "there would have been a fire" also applicable??

  • 1
    It's a very strange sentence (and we don't speak of last Monday's beginning), but you certainly need would have been, not will have been. Commented Mar 21, 2022 at 12:51
  • 2
    You need to read up on your Douglas Adams - goodreads.com/quotes/… Commented Mar 21, 2022 at 12:52
  • @Kate Bunting, thanks for you attention. Please keep in mind that if the people traveled back to the past at monday start, these people will live throughout this day again that the monday end will be a future to them agree? Commented Mar 21, 2022 at 12:58
  • 1
    You are talking about events in the past (last Monday morning or early last Monday - note the capital M). Even though Monday evening is in the future to the time-travellers, it is still in the past to the reader. They knew that there would be a fire that day or there would have been a fire by the end of the day. Commented Mar 21, 2022 at 13:12

1 Answer 1


A basic assumption of grammatical tense is that time proceeds in the same way for everyone. My future is your future. My past is your past. Grammar doesn't try to deal with time travel.

So there is no answer to your question. We don't have grammatical structures in English to deal with an event that is in both the past and the future, on different timelines.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .