if the sentence you are analysing contains a modal verb, then it is positioned in ‘I’,any other verbs then being located in VP.
(English Syntax and Argumentation - Bas Aarts)

At first, I think the The bold clause should be "...is located..." but then I realize it might be in the form of a non-finite clause (ing clause with a subject) but I'm not sure. If it isn't, how you describe this usage? Is this common in English?

1 Answer 1


The clause you ask about is indeed a non-finite clause headed by a present participle (being located).

A clause of this sort is called an absolute clause. Unlike an ordinary participle clause, whose subject is inferred to be a constituent of the main clause and which thus is taken to modify that constituent, an absolute clause has its own subject. It has consequently only a very loose connection to the main clause: it is essentially an independent clause which is formally subordinated (by its non-finite verb) to its main clause so that it is cast as a ‘supplement’ to that main clause.

This answer and this one have more to say about absolute clauses.

  • Thank you Mr StoneyB. Does the word "then" function as a conjunctive adverb ? Can I insert more adverbs in such clauses. Aug 10, 2014 at 19:52
  • @user2747502 1) No, it's an ordinary adverb meaning "next, thereafter". 2) Fersher. "... any other verbs thereupon/subsequently/in due course/in the fullness of time being located in VP. Aug 10, 2014 at 23:18
  • "next, thereafter": I think it's a bit more like in that case, the same kind of then that we find in if...then... - But that's just my opinion :) Nice answer +1 Aug 11, 2014 at 1:59

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