Is there any difference between these two sentences?
I have spoken with many natives before.
I have spoken to many natives before.
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2This post on our sister site English Language & Usage may be helpful: english.stackexchange.com/q/866/80039– ColleenVApr 27, 2022 at 19:02
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natives?? What do you mean?– LambieMay 25 at 17:34
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2 Answers
That's a good question. They can ultimately mean the same thing but can imply certain characteristics (hierarchy, closeness, etc.) about the relationship among the people in the group.
I started to write a response but realized this has been explained pretty well by this post: https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/866/speak-to-vs-speak-with
The answer Cygnus linked is good. To provide a simple answer in this thread:
The two sentences you provided have the same meaning, at least in their most common use. The first specifically states that your communications were two-way conversations, while in the second it is implied. Because of this, if you spoke to several people who did not reply, you would want to use the second. If you had conversations with several people, either would be correct.
