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Hello so I have been practicing some keyword formation and I found this sentence(sentence below in bold), but I wonder why there is "have" and not has when there is 3rd person(HE). Thanks for every answer.

He might not have been informed about his uncle's death.

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    The subject may be 3rd person "he", but the verb "have" is the plain (infinitive) form, not the 1st person "have". The plain form is required because it follows the modal auxiliary verb "might".
    – BillJ
    May 12 at 15:37
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    After might and other modal auxiliary verbs, the next verb in the chain has to be an infinitive form (have in this case), and not a tensed form (like has). You say He might not go rather than *He might not goes May 12 at 15:41

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He might not have been informed about his uncle's death.

The subject may be 3rd person "he", but the verb "have" is the plain (infinitive) form, not the 1st person "have", so there is no conflict of tenses.

The plain form is required because it follows the modal auxiliary verb "might", which always requires as its complement a clause headed by a plain-form verb, hence the plain-form "have" not the tensed 3rd person verb "has".

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  • Very good answer!
    – Brunke
    May 12 at 17:24
  • To elaborate on this a little, the same would be true if it were "He SHOULD have been informed..." or "He COULD have been informed...". Both of these statements are not definitive. They are not necessarily saying that he WAS informed, but that he would have or could have or should have been informed. The definitive version would be "He WAS informed" (note: I only capitalized the words for emphasis)
    – Brunke
    May 12 at 17:32
  • @Brunke Yes, the complement clauses of all the modals ("might, must, can. could, should" etc.) are always infinitival (plain form).
    – BillJ
    May 13 at 7:44

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