Almost one in three Americans in their mid-20's now fall into this group, up from one in five in late 1960's.

What does "up from" mean? Is it even a phrase?

1 Answer 1


It's just referring to the proportion, which has gone up - in other words, risen - from one in five to one in three.

  • 2
    The proportion was one in five in the late 1960s - now it is one in three. (It doesn't refer to people aged 65+!) Commented May 25, 2022 at 12:40
  • Could I ask one more question? When exactly does "now" in this sentence refer to? I think there is a contradiction between “in their mid-20‘s” and “now”. The context is about some of the Americans dropped out of schools Commented May 25, 2022 at 12:49
  • "Now" refers to the point in time at which the sentence was written. "In their mid-20's" refers to persons of a particular age. Persons who were in their mid-20's in the late 1960s are a completely different group of people than persons who are in their mid-20's "now".
    – Hellion
    Commented May 25, 2022 at 13:50
  • 1
    You are still confusing dates with ages! One in three Americans currently aged about 25 fall into 'this group' (of people who left school early?). In the 1960s, only one in five people of that age fell into the group. Commented May 25, 2022 at 13:55

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