2
  1. I know him for a long time.
  2. I have known him for a long time.

There doesn't seem to be any doubt that 2 is perfectly correct and perfectly idiomatic; however, I'm not so sure about 1.

My questions:

  1. Is 1 a correct sentence?
  2. Does 1 express the same meaning as 2?

2 Answers 2

2

No, #1 is not a correct sentence. And, as a result, no, #1 does not express the same meaning as #2.

For what it's worth, related correct sentences (none of which mean the same as your #2) include:

I knew him for a long time.

I had known him for a long time.

I will have known him for a long time.

I would have known him for a long time.

1

I know him from school. I know him from work.

I know him well.

I don't know him at all.

The simple present in English is for general statements. It can't be said enough. It is not used with expressions of time using for and since.

The present perfect is for adding expressions of time, for example: I've known him for ages, for two weeks, for only 24-hours.

Obviously, other tenses can also be used but the question here was not about them. Please note: the verb know is stative and not usually used in a continuous tense.

2
  • Just to be clear, is sentence 1 a grammatical sentence as well? May 28, 2022 at 14:36
  • 1
    No, not at all. If it had been I would have said so. I just explained why it isn't.
    – Lambie
    May 28, 2022 at 14:37

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