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  1. ...after you have viewed the document, we could continue our conversation
  2. ...after having viewed the document, we...
  3. ...after you having viewed the document, we...

I am aware that number 1 and 2 are correct. I am also aware of the difference in meaning/when to use.

My question: Is number 3 correct / accepted?

I believe I have heard such constructions in British English, e.g. "after him having viewed the document, we..." but I need certainty.

What is the grammatical term for number 3?

2 Answers 2

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No. (3) is OK. Using the accusative or objective pronouns me, you, him, us, them, followed by a gerund form (in this case 'after you having viewed') is often dismissed as 'incorrect' by traditional grammarians. It is, however, so commonly used that most people regard it as a less formal variant of the more 'correct' or 'educated' form using a possessive, my, your, his, our, their, 'after your having viewed...' (Her is the same in both variants).

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  • This might be different in BrE and AmE. As an American, I rarely hear "after you having viewed" and it sounds "off" to me somehow.
    – Esther
    Jun 21, 2022 at 21:47
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    @Esther - well, in BrE, 'after you having viewed' comes over as less 'stuffy' than ''after your having viewed'. Chapter 14, section 4.3, of the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, has a section seeking to destroy the traditional distinction between gerund clauses and present participle clauses, by arguing they all belong to a single inflectional category; namely, gerund-participles. Jun 21, 2022 at 21:58
  • I was going to add that I would use "your" only in formal contexts, and option 1 (after you have viewed" in other ones, but I guess that part didn't get into the comment ;) It is "stuffy" in AmE as well, but "you" here seems less common than you describe.
    – Esther
    Jun 21, 2022 at 22:04
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Actually, it's number 1 and 3 which are correct.

...after having viewed the document, we... would mean:

After we have viewed the document...

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    #2 is definitely correct, e.g. "We talked, and after having viewed the document ( i.e. after viewing the document), we meet and speak about the unclear parts."
    – JoHKa
    Jun 21, 2022 at 16:24
  • @johann_ka. Generally speaking, yes, it is correct, but in the specific sense mentioned here, I don't think it is. And I have explained why in my answer.
    – PPH
    Jun 21, 2022 at 17:00
  • Your answer assumes that the person speaking also hasn't yet read it. That doesn't seem a likely conclusion. Jun 22, 2022 at 10:04

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