I referenced ♦ and Why are the subject and the verb inverted after the conjunction 'as'?, but they discuss only declarative statements (like my French question here).
Sadly, the technical linguistic terms in ♦ confuse me. It discusses (majuscules mine)
the exclamative's subject getting postposed (with the resulting overall effect SIMILAR to subject-dependent inversion)
...Notice that version #2 has the exclamative phrase ("how widespread") fronted
Does subject-verb inversion differ from "the subject to be postposed "? What's the latter called?
Where does fronting feature here? Is it another separate concept (so the third one)?
Does a question always allow inversion of the subject and verb? Where might it not?
For example, I guess that the author inverts below, because it's easier to place the short verb ahead of the lengthy subject clause (that I've greyed)?
Can the law hold that consulting God for guidance is permissible but consulting any other non-corporeal entity is not allowed? If so, what will the court say is
the validating element in religious faith in contradistinction to superstitious faith?
Source: p 160, How the Law Works, Gary Slapper, 2014.