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"I was a very stubborn student at secondary school, and it was not until (after) I was beaten by a teacher for my poor attitude, that I stopped being stubborn and became respectful."

This sentence sounds correct, but appears wrong because I don't think grammar rules are in line with using two subordinate conjunctions side by side (...until after...).

Also, I think the word 'after' doesn't change the meaning of the sentence, that is, even if it is removed from the sentence, the idea being conveyed will remain the same. Am I right?

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    If you use google ngram viewer you will find "until after" is certainly in use and current. However it's not very common. It could be argued that "after" is redundant in your sentence. From the attestations in google ngram, it would appear to be more commonly used in legal, official government, and scientific works - presumably for extra clarity.
    – Billy Kerr
    Commented Sep 3, 2022 at 22:50
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    Duplicate? What's the difference between until and until after? (In that question they're prepositions but the usage isn't really different.)
    – Laurel ♦
    Commented Sep 3, 2022 at 23:54
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    "It was not until I was beaten" OR "It was only after I was beaten".
    – Kate Bunting
    Commented Sep 4, 2022 at 8:20

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